Presuming you’re talking about disenfranchised citizens, that’s mostly felons. And IMO it is abhorrent to take away a citizen’s right to vote unless that citizen committed a specific type of crime against the government (being that it is the representative of the people), like sedition, treason, or insurrection. And even then, disenfranchisement should not be permanent.
But notably people are disenfranchised by their state and city jurisdictions. The federal government does not determine whether you can vote in any given election, just the rules that apply to all elections. If you want to blame a federal body, there’s plenty to go around - SCOTUS has upheld disenfranchisement as constitutional and Congress has not really passed meaningful laws defining and regulating the practice. But I can’t think of a law that Biden has been instrumental in that contributes here, other than, of course, his 1994 crime bill. That’s not a small deal but it is far more complicated than “Biden took away voter rights”
Presuming you’re talking about disenfranchised citizens, that’s mostly felons. And IMO it is abhorrent to take away a citizen’s right to vote unless that citizen committed a specific type of crime against the government (being that it is the representative of the people), like sedition, treason, or insurrection. And even then, disenfranchisement should not be permanent.
But notably people are disenfranchised by their state and city jurisdictions. The federal government does not determine whether you can vote in any given election, just the rules that apply to all elections. If you want to blame a federal body, there’s plenty to go around - SCOTUS has upheld disenfranchisement as constitutional and Congress has not really passed meaningful laws defining and regulating the practice. But I can’t think of a law that Biden has been instrumental in that contributes here, other than, of course, his 1994 crime bill. That’s not a small deal but it is far more complicated than “Biden took away voter rights”