Seems like it should and the result should be one. Does mathematics agree with me on that?

  • RedwoodAnarchy
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    1 year ago

    It’s a calculus thing. We can only give the expression a value if we know the functions giving us a zero value that are being devided. For example if we were dividing the function (X) by the function (X^2) at zero our we would get infinity (Wikipedia has a pretty good page on indeterminate forms).

    You could also think of it like multiplying both the numerator and denominator of a fraction by 0. This should preserve the fractions value, but multiplying by 0 essentially erases both values so we can no longer know what the fraction equals unless we know how both values came to be 0.