I know. But what you were talking about made no sense given the context and text’s history.
If there were internal narrative changes like that in Mark that migrated to Luke or were found in Marcion’s version, there’d be no questioning that an author was having that change take place in their original composition.
But what you have is a brief interpolated reversal of an earlier prohibition attributed to Jesus, a position both canonically and extra-canonically, suddenly inserted out of the blue in the narrative which doesn’t appear in the earlier source where the original prohibition comes from and isn’t even present in the earliest extant version of the story where the reversal is.
It’s not an internal narrative change like Harry Potter becoming a wizard.
I know. But what you were talking about made no sense given the context and text’s history.
If there were internal narrative changes like that in Mark that migrated to Luke or were found in Marcion’s version, there’d be no questioning that an author was having that change take place in their original composition.
But what you have is a brief interpolated reversal of an earlier prohibition attributed to Jesus, a position both canonically and extra-canonically, suddenly inserted out of the blue in the narrative which doesn’t appear in the earlier source where the original prohibition comes from and isn’t even present in the earliest extant version of the story where the reversal is.
It’s not an internal narrative change like Harry Potter becoming a wizard.