ban forced marriages, female genital mutilation
Why only female? Why the double standard?
Because the case of forced female marriage is much more of an issue than that for males? It is much more efficient to spend energy fighting a widespread injustice than a very uncommon one that may be more situational than traditional
I think they’re talking about the genial mutilation part, not the marriage part
ah yeah, makes sense
In France, rape is defined as a sexual act committed under threat, duress, surprise or violence.
Well… yeah? Seems perfectly logical to me. Those can be proven in a court, how do you prove that you did not consent in cases that are not listed above?
Edit: The legifrance article about rape, which the official, state provided explanations and listing of French law, states the above definition, followed by an important addition:
Rape occurs when an act of sexual penetration or an oral-genital act is committed on a person, with violence, coercion, threat or surprise, that is without his consent.
I’m pretty sure the opposition to a redefinition of “rape” is due to provability of the crime, and not a denial of the importance of consent
Edit2: source
