• lugal@sopuli.xyz
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    12 hours ago

    According to the explanation link, it’s /k/ vs /ʃ/ in this case. Old Greek would be [kh], modern Greek [ç]. I guess there was a time where it was [x].

    • Lvxferre@mander.xyzM
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      11 hours ago

      I was just being cheeky with the cha-cha-cha thing, but if I were to be a bit less useless more informative [sorry, I’ll sperg out about etymology]:

      [kʰ]→[x] likely started around 400 BCE. By then Aristophanes was representing Laconian/Spartan speech using ⟨σ⟩ instead of ⟨θ⟩, indicating that Laconian Greek underwent [tʰ]→[θ]; and since this change goes side-to-side with [pʰ kʰ]→[ɸ x], they’re likely from the same times.

      However odds are that the “old” sound [kʰ] survived for a few centuries in Attic and/or Ionic, as Latin still borrows a fair chunk of Greek words with ⟨φ θ χ⟩ being transliterated with ⟨ph th ch⟩, instead of ⟨f t~s h⟩ - even words related to Christianity like ⟨eucharistia⟩ or ⟨blasphemo⟩. The borrowing ⟨Charon⟩ is probably a bit older, so it’s safe to say that you were “expected” to pronounce it with [kʰ] in Latin (…and in practice everyone adapted to [k] as it was the closest in the local phonology).

      Modern Greek keeps that [x] for that word - [ç] only appears before [e i].

      Then there’s [ʃ] reading from the name Charlene, mentioned in the link. The name is surprisingly recent, Wiktionary claims that it’s from the XIX century. By then French already underwent [tʃ]→[ʃ], although the digraph ⟨ch⟩ was likely repurposed by Old French to be used with [tʃ].

      • lugal@sopuli.xyz
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        10 hours ago

        Modern Greek keeps that [x] for that word - [ç] only appears before [e i].

        I was about to edit that when I saw your comment. Guess I wasn’t completely awake. Thanks for the elaboration!