Linguistic body has relaxed rules on use of apostrophe to show possession, not traditionally correct in German
  • BearOfaTime
    22·
    1 day ago

    Doesn’t “idiot’s” in this example show possession?

    And the “Johnson’s” is a plural?

    Or do I misunderstand what you’re trying to say saying?

    • BumpingFuglies@lemmy.zipEnglish
      9·
      1 day ago

      In English, apostrophes are only used for possession and to indicate missing letters (usually vowels), as in contractions.

      My example showed apostrophes incorrectly being used for non-possessive plural nouns. I used a proper noun (“Johnson”) and a common one (“pizza”) to better illustrate my point.

      • BearOfaTime
        2·
        12 hours ago

        Thanks.

        Wanted to make sure I was getting what you were puttin’ down.

        Yea, the rules are pretty clear, at least I always thought so.

        Kind of telling that so many people can’t be bothered to understand it.

        • BumpingFuglies@lemmy.zipEnglish
          3·
          13 hours ago

          Nah, it’s pretty simple. Pronouns don’t use apostrophes for possession; they only use them for contractions like “it’s”.