The genocide was too prevent famine within the imperial core. The grain shortages were more pronounced in England so their solution was to starve their subjects to protect the profitable labor within England itself.
We talking about the indian or irish one? Because as far as I know the UK was stockpiling food while people in India were starving
Yeah, because the was a shortage, but they need to keep grain price stable. If they didn’t stockpile and allowed India to keep all the grain they needed to avert famine there would have been starvation in England.
Ah okay yeah. I’d always thought they stockpiled it for fear of running out (even though I think they had 3x the calculated needed amount) if the germans could blockade them again or something. It’s been a while since I learnt about it, so the facts are quite hazy. Thanks for sharing some history with me!
I’m no big historian in this topic, but I know that British policy was based on Smith’s idea that grain prices need to remain stable. Which is why they stockpiled during famine in the periphery.
We talking about the indian or irish one? Because as far as I know the UK was stockpiling food while people in India were starving
Yeah, because the was a shortage, but they need to keep grain price stable. If they didn’t stockpile and allowed India to keep all the grain they needed to avert famine there would have been starvation in England.
Ah okay yeah. I’d always thought they stockpiled it for fear of running out (even though I think they had 3x the calculated needed amount) if the germans could blockade them again or something. It’s been a while since I learnt about it, so the facts are quite hazy. Thanks for sharing some history with me!
I’m no big historian in this topic, but I know that British policy was based on Smith’s idea that grain prices need to remain stable. Which is why they stockpiled during famine in the periphery.
I appreciate your input! I have nothing else to add but thank you for your time