• letsgo
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    2 months ago

    There are in fact at least two alternative explanations on this: (1) Paul is issuing a general decree that in absolute terms means women must never have authority in any situation ever at any time; (2) this is a local issue specific to Israel at the time because Jews believed women shouldn’t have authority, and the Church allowing them to would bring it into disrepute, so this was fitting in with the local society. The second interpretation also ties in with Paul’s “all things to all people” teaching. Also Paul in other places specifically notes the difference between “I, not the Lord…”, and “The Lord, not I…”, and this line states “–I-- do not permit…”, suggesting this is from Paul rather than an ultimate directive from above.

      • letsgo
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        2 months ago

        Sure, but (a) that’s how exegesis works, and (b) so are you if you’re extrapolating anything beyond Paul’s statement. He cannot permit or refuse anything now because he’s dead.