• Mardoniush [she/her]@hexbear.net
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    1 year ago

    My point is that unlike China, India was “deindustrialised” over the 19th century from a fairly advanced 18th century economy.

    They had approx same amounts of 19th century tech, sure, but China still had a large base of skilled artisans that could bootstrap internal development of production, while India had a much more vestigial capacity.

    • Dolores [love/loves]@hexbear.net
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      1 year ago

      China still had a large base of skilled artisans that could bootstrap internal development of production

      did they though? China wasn’t industrialized yet but forcibly opened up as a market for western goods. their attempts at building a domestic industrial base were disrupted by the warlords & japan. i don’t think there was a nucleic handicraft economy waiting to develop into an industrial one, at least not outside of the most remote places which factory products had never reached.