Hi all, I have a new switch on home and I was wondering how to configure the connection between them.

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https://preview.redd.it/9xjuiaie1o2c1.png?width=634&format=png&auto=webp&s=1c670c4144fae8f135c0b21600fcd841bc2d5e96

My actual switch (SW-A) has all vlans (1,10,30,50,60) and I want to pass all vlans to SW-B.

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PFSense LAN (+vlans) port 1 to SW-A port 1

SW-A port 8 to SW-B port 1

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So my first approach is:

- SW-A port 8: Assign all vlans as tagged

- SW-B create all vlans ID

- SW-B port 1: Assign all vlans as tagged.

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Is this the correct way?

  • Born-Basis7489@alien.topBEnglish
    1·
    10 months ago

    Set the uplink port with the desired vlan tags or set to all traffic if that setting is available. Then configure the rest of the ports with necessary vlan info.

  • mlcarson@alien.topBEnglish
    1·
    10 months ago

    The connection from SW-A to SW-B should be a VLAN trunk – ie tagged (all vlans assigned assigned would normally be the default). VLANs have to be defined on both switches.

    The connection from SW-A to the router would also be configured as a VLAN trunk - ie tagged.

    The only difference is how the router would be configured. From a Juniper/Cisco perspective, you would create subinterfaces for each tagged VLAN and assigned them the VLAN Id’s of the tagged ports. Each subinterface would have an IP address corresponding to the network’s default gateway. I’m not sure if the PFSense is different – I never use this software for a router.

    VLAN 1 is normally considered special because it would be the native VLAN on most switches so would be an untagged VLAN. If this is unintended, the easiest thing would be to change the VLAN number and tag it. Alternatively if the switch and router allow it, simply change the native VLAN to something besides 1. It it’s intentional then do nothing.