The other day, I was arguing with someone israel and Palestine, and they brought up the whole “everybody has done settler colonialism before” trope. While it’s an idiotic argument even if true (directly contradicting their whole “rules based international order” sthick), it did get me wondering.
I’ve assumed up until now that settler colonialism is a phenomena unique to the capitalist phase of history, but how true is that exactly?
I’ve read that work of Lenin, but I haven’t read it in years, and I was hoping if you had an in-depth analysis of pre-modern colonialism. But I understand.
I don’t know anything about pre-modern colonialism. That’s why I asked this question in the first place.