• ToastedPlanet@lemmy.blahaj.zoneOP
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    13 days ago

    No more explanation needed.

    This is a question a user posted in another thread.

    While I understand their suppressions are an attack on democracy and an attempt to make voting more difficult, why does it disproportionately affect Democrats? Are Republicans just more willing to jump through loops?

    I have seen many similar questions and discussions on Reddit in the past before I switched to Lemmy. When one person asks a question it’s safe to assume there are more people with the same question, but aren’t asking.

    Over the course of the year, accelerationist rhetoric has run rampant on Lemmy. People need to know that no matter where they live their vote is desperately needed. Republicans have the advantage in our flawed democracy. The Republican strategy is to sow doubt about the election so they can overturn the results. The closer the count is whether that be the total popular vote count nationwide, a statewide count, a countywide count, or even one polling station’s count, the more likely that is to happen. So every vote matters no matter where a person lives.

    • Buffalox@lemmy.world
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      13 days ago

      Everything you write is true, but the most important thing is that it’s not supposed to be like that in a democracy. It all boils down to the system in USA being flawed.

      • ToastedPlanet@lemmy.blahaj.zoneOP
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        13 days ago

        the most important thing is that it’s not supposed to be like that in a democracy. It all boils down to the system in USA being flawed.

        My argument’s point is that this is useful rhetorical shorthand, but there are uniformed people who don’t know what it is short for. Posts like this are a useful way to educate those people, so they can use and understand that shorthand. Especially when we are this close to the election and these kinds of questions are on peoples’ minds. edit: typo